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Topic
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Impressive research! There’s a lot provided in the data-rendering and have only done a first pass.
Observations
*> the first decline of Biblical “jargon” appears soon after the so-called Glorious Revolution in England.
*> a brief reprise in the decline appears during the French revolution-Napoleonic era.
*> decline resumes in earnest post-revolutionary France, and during the emergence of a new ideology proper which will export the revolutions throughout the 20th century (and into the 21st century, culturally). This last point may open up possibilities for discussion.
Critique
Category error: ideologies.
Christianity is not an ideology, it is a religion. One might say: religion > culture > ideology.
Economics is hardly a full-fledged ideology. It is an expression, a tool of, (competing) ideologies perhaps, and even competing schools within an ideology but is essentially just a tool of the powerful (as CasP itself takes pains to demonstrate with the Chicago school etc). Once a question within moral philosophy it has typically since been a pseudo-science. As a scholar within CasP I know you know this.
However, the themes or topics intrinsic to economics (if meant more generally as say, the redistribution of wealth) are hardly foreign or obscure to Christianity. Economics are all over the place in the bible and in the writings of the Church up to the present day. This is to address an observation within the paper that admits Christian (limited to biblical texts, for some reason) language naturally excludes modern economic nomenclature simply due to chronology. Of course, but it does not exclude the topics and therefore not the discussion. Well, what are words without a discussion? Data? But even the rendering of words as mere data incorporates, even reifies them, ideologically.
Am I overstating or misreading if I seem to observe the thesis weighs the words in question equally (that is, not at all), thus rendering them quantifiable? That words are mere data? I get (I think) that you are more concerned about the relative usage and popularity of these words. But something about this whole process has me uneasy. Is it possible for language to be mere data? If I survey the contents of my room and notice many books and one wife must I conclude the books are more valuable?
The Church (and hence Christianity) has had much to say than simply Biblical texts on a wide range of topics, including economics. I wonder why you limited your sample source to Biblical texts.
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