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By the end of slavery in the United States, it seems clear that the price of a slave reflected the discounted present value of the future profits the slave’s labor was expected to generate over his/her remaining life.
My question is whether this was also true in Ancient Greece or Ancient Rome, for example? If not, how were slave prices set, and when/where did the pricing methodology change?
For whatever reason, I was struck today by the idea that chattel slavery may be the most primitive (or the original) form of capitalism.
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