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Hi all, I saw this labor article the other day which critiques the idea falling rates of strikes in the U.S. is caused by the falling rate of profit. Instead, the author says the decline of union activity was caused by the government controlling labor with new laws and legal institutions such as the National Labor Relations Board. For those unfamiliar with labor in the U.S., the government restructured the labor movement in the 1930s with the primary aim to take class struggle off the shop floor into compromized legal avenues. Most notably, through this restructuring we see the emergence of the no-strike clause as the epitome of the U.S. labor movement’s subordination to capital. Here is the article:
https://organizing.work/2022/01/strikes-do-not-rise-and-fall-with-the-rate-of-profit/I was wondering if anyone had thoughts on the decline of labor union and decline of strikes from the perspective of CasP. Specifically, is it related to differential accumulation in the U.S.? I saw some discussion in the article “Can Capitalists Afford Recovery” (Figure 14)
although, the data doesn’t go back prior to the 1930s when all this restructuring happened. Thoughts?
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