[max gr]

The political usefulness of the concept ‘rent’ also comes into question from the “outside” (analytically speaking):

Wage/salaries for the top 1% income bracket accounts for about 50% of its total income, and for the top 0.01% it accounts for about 20%-30% (depends on the exact type of measurement). Shouldn’t these income type (and possibly others more) be considered ‘rent’ as well, if what we want to denote are capitalistic incomes de-facto? And if so, where does it leave the effectiveness of the concept, now expanded?

• This reply was modified 4 years ago by max gr.

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